Throughout the years MLS has attracted some big names in international soccer and reportedly could be on the verge of acquiring two more.
Gonzalo Higuain and Gylfi Sigurdsson have been linked with moves to MLS, The Athletic reported Tuesday. Higuain is linked with both D.C. United and Inter Miami while Sigurdsson has reportedly had talks with the Black and Red, according to the report.
Higuain is in the final year of his contract with Italian Serie A side Juventus, but isn’t expected to play a role in Andrea Pirlo’s squad. The 32-year-old Argentinian striker made 44 combined appearances for Juventus this season, scoring 11 goals and registering eight assists.
He’s also played for Real Madrid, AC Milan, Chelsea, Napoli, and River Plate in his lengthy career. Higuain has also earned 75 caps for Argentina, scoring 31 goals. Should Inter Miami acquire him, he will join former Juventus teammate Blaise Matuidi, who was acquired earlier this summer.
Sigurdsson is heading into his fourth season with English Premier League side Everton after joining the Merseyside club from Swansea City in Aug. 2017. The 30-year-old Icelandic international has also played for Tottenham, Hoffenheim, and Reading in this career.
Since arriving at Everton, Sigurdsson has totaled over 100 appearances for the club, scoring 23 goals and adding 15 assists. Mainly he’s been used as an attacking midfielder at Goodison Park and for Iceland, where’s he’s earned 74 caps and previously served as captain.
Sigurdsson’s arrival at D.C. United would give Ben Olsen’s side a creative and veteran option in midfield to help fill the void left by Wayne Rooney’s departure in 2019.
Both D.C. United and Inter Miami have struggled this MLS season, currently sitting in the bottom two spots in the Eastern Conference.